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	<title>Comments on: how?</title>
	<link>http://www.clarkecomments.com/archives/how/</link>
	<description>Clarke comments on the Restoration Movement and the Church of Christ.</description>
	<pubDate>Sun, 12 Oct 2008 00:17:36 +0000</pubDate>
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		<title>by: jk</title>
		<link>http://www.clarkecomments.com/archives/how/#comment-11669</link>
		<pubDate>Sat, 14 Apr 2007 02:29:50 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://www.clarkecomments.com/archives/how/#comment-11669</guid>
					<description>JP, you've got nothing to say against it because you know it's true.  And Mark, you say &quot;I don’t think Greek grammar rules will help on this.&quot;  You made the claim that in Greek we could encounter a statement like &quot;godisnowwhere&quot; and it could either mean &quot;God is now here&quot; or &quot;God is nowhere&quot; and it is impossible for us to know which is the intended meaning.  This is ludicrous.  Allow me to illustrate.  If we changed English from a plain ole syntactic language to an inflected language like Greek, we can clearly see the folly here.  Let's say that for our inflected English the subject of the sentence must end in -us and the object of the verb must end in -am and that the adjectives or adverbs modifying the object must also end in -am.  In such an inflected form of English, &quot;God is now here&quot; would become &quot;Godus is nowam heream&quot; and without spaces &quot;godusisnowamheream&quot; whereas the phrase &quot;God is nowhere&quot; would be &quot;Godus is nowheream&quot; and without spaces &quot;godusisnowheream.&quot;  Thus, in an inflected language the two statements are clearly different even without spaces: &quot;godusisnowamheream&quot; and &quot;godusisnowheream.&quot;  Therefore, in order to bring the spaces back and make sense of the statements, we look at the case of the words.  In this example, we know that the subject must in in -us and therefore we put a space after &quot;godus&quot; and we know that -am is the end of an adjective, adverb or object, so we put spaces after -am, and thus we get back &quot;godus is nowam heream&quot; and &quot;godus is nowheream&quot; bot statements distinctly different in meaning and clearly separate.  This is why your view of the Bible is nothing more than a lie from Satan.  It was not written in the manner you erroneously claim, and only an atheist would state that it was.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>JP, you&#8217;ve got nothing to say against it because you know it&#8217;s true.  And Mark, you say &#8220;I don’t think Greek grammar rules will help on this.&#8221;  You made the claim that in Greek we could encounter a statement like &#8220;godisnowwhere&#8221; and it could either mean &#8220;God is now here&#8221; or &#8220;God is nowhere&#8221; and it is impossible for us to know which is the intended meaning.  This is ludicrous.  Allow me to illustrate.  If we changed English from a plain ole syntactic language to an inflected language like Greek, we can clearly see the folly here.  Let&#8217;s say that for our inflected English the subject of the sentence must end in -us and the object of the verb must end in -am and that the adjectives or adverbs modifying the object must also end in -am.  In such an inflected form of English, &#8220;God is now here&#8221; would become &#8220;Godus is nowam heream&#8221; and without spaces &#8220;godusisnowamheream&#8221; whereas the phrase &#8220;God is nowhere&#8221; would be &#8220;Godus is nowheream&#8221; and without spaces &#8220;godusisnowheream.&#8221;  Thus, in an inflected language the two statements are clearly different even without spaces: &#8220;godusisnowamheream&#8221; and &#8220;godusisnowheream.&#8221;  Therefore, in order to bring the spaces back and make sense of the statements, we look at the case of the words.  In this example, we know that the subject must in in -us and therefore we put a space after &#8220;godus&#8221; and we know that -am is the end of an adjective, adverb or object, so we put spaces after -am, and thus we get back &#8220;godus is nowam heream&#8221; and &#8220;godus is nowheream&#8221; bot statements distinctly different in meaning and clearly separate.  This is why your view of the Bible is nothing more than a lie from Satan.  It was not written in the manner you erroneously claim, and only an atheist would state that it was.
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		<title>by: JP Manzi</title>
		<link>http://www.clarkecomments.com/archives/how/#comment-11655</link>
		<pubDate>Fri, 13 Apr 2007 06:05:06 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://www.clarkecomments.com/archives/how/#comment-11655</guid>
					<description>&quot;The 20,000+ denominations are caused by people like you who refuse to understand God’s word because they’d rather (for example) go and kill people and ignore “put thy sword in its sheath for all who take up the sword shall die by the sword” and “recompense not evil for evil” and “the weapons of our warfare are not carnal” and “we wrestle not against flesh and blood.” 


Boy o boy. Wow.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>&#8220;The 20,000+ denominations are caused by people like you who refuse to understand God’s word because they’d rather (for example) go and kill people and ignore “put thy sword in its sheath for all who take up the sword shall die by the sword” and “recompense not evil for evil” and “the weapons of our warfare are not carnal” and “we wrestle not against flesh and blood.” </p>
<p>Boy o boy. Wow.
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		<title>by: mark</title>
		<link>http://www.clarkecomments.com/archives/how/#comment-11652</link>
		<pubDate>Fri, 13 Apr 2007 04:36:49 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://www.clarkecomments.com/archives/how/#comment-11652</guid>
					<description>Manzi 
 

 For me it is impossible to understand why a God  would come to earth to let man kill him. And that through such acts we might have a home in heaven. Yet I believe it! Its because man witnessed it and wrote it down. What should I expect to see in such writings perfection or humanity? A flawed Bible proves God existence? 

 20,000 denomination proves to me Christ is Omni present and unifies the parts of the body to himself? It is a good thing. But it also proves again the difficulty in following Jesus. Here's an example what day did Jesus partake of the Lord's supper? 

 And another example: These are the signs for those who accompany those who believe: they will cast out demons in my name; they will speak in a new tongues; and they will take up snakes in their hands; and if they drink any poison it will not hurt them; they will place there hands upon the sick and they will heal them. Gospel of Mark 

 Here is an easy question for JK do you do those things? And if you don't how could you be a believer? I don't think Greek grammar rules will help on this. What we will have to read is a confession of being partial Preterist .</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Manzi </p>
<p> For me it is impossible to understand why a God  would come to earth to let man kill him. And that through such acts we might have a home in heaven. Yet I believe it! Its because man witnessed it and wrote it down. What should I expect to see in such writings perfection or humanity? A flawed Bible proves God existence? </p>
<p> 20,000 denomination proves to me Christ is Omni present and unifies the parts of the body to himself? It is a good thing. But it also proves again the difficulty in following Jesus. Here&#8217;s an example what day did Jesus partake of the Lord&#8217;s supper? </p>
<p> And another example: These are the signs for those who accompany those who believe: they will cast out demons in my name; they will speak in a new tongues; and they will take up snakes in their hands; and if they drink any poison it will not hurt them; they will place there hands upon the sick and they will heal them. Gospel of Mark </p>
<p> Here is an easy question for JK do you do those things? And if you don&#8217;t how could you be a believer? I don&#8217;t think Greek grammar rules will help on this. What we will have to read is a confession of being partial Preterist .
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